GGPChat

"When the position reaches 0.5%, a public notification must be made. A public notification must be made again at each 0.1% threshold above 0.5%." JPM have done just that when they reached the limit and I believe that's around 20M shares.

Understood, however, the bit I don't get (I am very naive when it comes to short selling) is the Ortex data collected on Monday 29th August, 99.57m shares on loan, +52.02M share went unreported when JPM had to report when they reached 20M. OK, I get the fact that this may have been a loan reported under previous conditions the day(s) before hence the brief fall but it doesn't explain why this trader, must of only been one, never made a public notification.

What I’m failing to understand is we’ve all been led to believe (even Shaun said he’s ‘looking forward to them buying them back’) that when they close the short we’ll be shooting back up cos of the buying pressure…well they’ve closed over half of them now and we’re still below 9 fkn p!!
So are they being let out easily or……don’t really have another option/question really!?
Once these transition things Shaun inherited were sorted then we should see lots of catalysts from all sorts of milestones ‘Shaun’ eluded to…well, from where I’m sitting I haven’t witnessed one catalyst! Only a collapse of what was once a decent share price. Been invested a long time and a big advocate of Ggp and Shaun but where has any shareholder value been increased in the last 18 months. I know it looks good now with fully funded and new execs, and investors on board but if that short closes and we’re still below 15-18p then wtaf has happened since 36p ffs!

Just a layman's guess but... Since we're at a very low, just before progress is expected, is it not the ideal time for people to close shorts exactly in the way the layman understands it?

Take out short when you feel there's gonna be a drop, sp drops, close the short.

The only way the shorts lose is if the price goes up after they take short, and their option to keep it open expires?

There doesn't seem to be anything nefarious about a load of shorts closing when the share price is the lowest its been in yonks!

That’s only if the shorts were first borrowed at a higher price, as we and you know they’ve taken some below 9p so you’re layman theory doesn’t really hold does it?

I must admit I fail to understand how this happens unless the shares were borrowed but not sold. In which case, why are so many shares being sold in such massive 100k 250k etc batches when it isn't shorters? Why would any 'investor feel the motivation to sell these shares with such vigour? I really am perplexed by it all.

That’s what I thought mushroom but then if they borrowed them but didn’t sell them into the market, aren’t they then paying the loan interest/fee every 3/5/7 days they hold them?

I believe so CK but it may still be worth their while paying for the loan in case they are needed. A small loss on interest could be chicken feed matched up against the profit made on main deployment. Heck, I dont know. Just find it perplexing and frustrating.

CK 1974 wrote: ↑Wed Sep 21, 2022 7:00 pm That’s only if the shorts were first borrowed at a higher price, as we and you know they’ve taken some below 9p so you’re layman theory doesn’t really hold does it?

I don't know anything, I'm just trying to find a rational reason for what we are observing.

Perhaps the newer 9p shorts are the shorting equivalent of people who bought in at 30p plus? Maybe they are the ones which remain open? Maybe something fantastically convoluted which I don't understand? Who knows?!